I'm not sure how this works -- Holly was originally on 50mg of oral pred at the time of her release from the hospital in November. They started to taper a bit after 1½ months. She got down to 35mg before they changed the plans and added a monthly iv methylpred treatment while holding with the oral dose as well. They explained that it was a precautionary move at the time to see if they could further combat any possibility of inflammation and the iv dose would help to safely reduce the oral dosage. The kidney function has increased since the two iv treatments so I'm not questioning that so much.
Holly is now down to 25mg of oral and the plan is to give her two more monthly iv treatments (April/May) which will see her lower the oral to 15mg. They will hold at that for a bit to see how she reacts.
Does this sound reasonable? Has anyone heard that the iv treatment allows them to safely reduce oral?
Also -- do most flare-ups occur when switching from cytoxan to the maintenance drugs (imuran/mtx)?
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