I have a 65 year old neighbour who was diagnosed with cancer a couple of years ago (now in remission) and while helping him out this past weekend I discovered that he was diagnosed with Vasculitis back in 1984. He had purpura, kidney, sinus and lung involvement and shortly after beginning treatment had GI/bowel involvement (bleeding). The puzzling thing to me was during our chat he informed me that he was given antibiotics and prednisone... .no immune suppressants of any kind! He was on pred for nearly 2 years and did the necessary tapering to get off of it.
27 years later he can't ever recall having a "vasculitis event" since the taper.
They considered his organ involvement very serious and he was very ill at the time so I'm amazed that he remained symptom-free that long without immune-suppressants.
Am I missing something?


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